He has delivered us from the domain of darkness and transferred us to the kingdom of his beloved Son, in whom we have redemption, the forgiveness of sins. He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation, because by him all things were created, in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities--all things were created through him and for him. And he is before all things, and in him all things hold together. And he is the head of the body, the church. He is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead, that in everything he might be preeminent. For in him all the fullness of God was pleased to dwell, and through him to reconcile to himself all things, whether on earth or in heaven, making peace by the blood of his cross.
Colossians 1:13-20
"Firstborn of all creation." It seems surprising to me that "Jehovah's Witnesses" want to refer to this passage to show that Jesus is not, in essence, God. If you pluck that one phrase, "firstborn of all creation" out of its context altogether, you might end up confused, but if you're at all familiar with the rest of the Bible, you won't allow that alone to convince you that the Son is created by, or even subordinate in any way to, the Father.
But to clear up any confusion, we should probably go right to the crux of the issue and deal with the words we find.
First of all, you could point out to a "Jehovah's Witness" that it does not say, "The first one God created," but "the firstborn of creation." To be born and to be created are two different things. The Bible speaks of the Son being begotten, and even being born, and in Hebrews, of being "brought into the world," but never once does it say that he was created. It never even hints it.
Second, if "firstborn of all creation" did mean that Christ was the first one created, there would be a logical contradiction in the verse, for it says that "all things" were created by him. That is an exclusive universal. How could "all things" have been created by a created thing? John claims, in John 1:3, that "without him nothing was made that was made." So if all things were made through Christ the Word, and nothing that now is exists apart from his creatorship, he clearly cannot have been made, otherwise he would have had to preexist himself, which is absurd.
Third, you should realize that in Greek there is no "of." The word is paseys ktiseows, which is the genitive for the phrase "all creation." Genitive is a pretty tricky case with many different aspects. It can be the genitive of possession, origin, status, and the list goes on. So we could get any number of translations of the Greek, "hos estin. . .prototokos paseys ktiseows."
Firstborn over all creation would be one, and for the sake of English emphasis one could place a comma after "firstborn." Or it could be this translation:
He is. . .the all-creating firstborn.Consider the very next words: "Because by him were created all things in heaven and on earth..." Why would the "because" be there if "firstborn of all creation" meant "the first created being" as "JW"s insist? Actually, either of the two previously suggested translations would work beautifully with the continuing text, because the emphasis could be on the "all-creating" nature of the Firstborn, or it could be on the fact that he is the ruler, for it states that he created all rule and dominion, etc., and he is head, or the ultimate authority, over the church.
Perhaps Hebrews, however, may shed some light on Paul's choice of language. "To which of the angels did God ever say, 'You are my Son, today I have begotten you?'" says Hebrews 1:5, and then, "We see him who for a little while was made lower than the angels, namely Jesus, crowned with glory and honor because of the suffering of death, so that by the grace of God, he might taste death for everyone. For it was fitting that he, for whom and by whom all things exist, in bringing many sons to glory, should make the founder of their salvation perfect through suffering. For he who sanctifies and those who are sanctified all have one origin. That is why he is not ashamed to call them brothers . . . Since therefore the children share in flesh and blood, he himself likewise partook of the same things, that through death he might destroy the one who has the power of death, that is, the devil . . . Therefore he had to be made like his brothers in every respect, so that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest. . ." (Hebrews 2:9-11, 14, 17)
John, too, has something to say about Christ's nature: "The Word" (who was in the beginning with God and who was God) "became flesh, and dwelt among us, and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only-begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth. . . . No one has seen God at any time; the only One, who is God, who is at the Father's side, he has made him known." (John 1:14, 18) Jesus says to Philip, "Whoever has seen me has seen the Father." (John 14:9)
Let no one presume to try to decipher the mysteries of the inter-Trinitarian relationships, or explain what God has not chosen to explain in his Word. He has not told us why his Name is Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, aside from the fact that the Father is the Son's Father and the Son is the Father's Son, and the Holy Spirit is sent from them both to apply the redemption purchased by the Son to our hearts. I will only suggest, based on the Scriptures above, that no Person of the Godhead was better suited to become a man than the Son, for then his sonship may be more easily understood by us.
I believe that it is in the context of the Incarnation that many verses that seem to subordinate, or give a temporal origin to, Jesus Christ are best understood. His "being made" is certainly always a reference to his incarnation, for "made" is always followed by
what he was made--"flesh" or "like his brothers," for instance.
Then there are all those passages, primarily in the introductions to Paul's letters, where "God" and "the Lord Jesus Christ" are mentioned side by side in the same verse. "The grace of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ" is a good enough example. I don't believe "God" in these instances always refers to the Father in particular. In those cases, the Holy Spirit would have been left out. It would make better sense to see that as speaking of the Triune God and the Incarnate Christ. The point is that, as Christopher Wordsworth put it, "God with man is on the throne." Because the God the Son took on flesh, the Triune God is forever united with man in the Man Christ Jesus. There is now a God-given image of the invisible God. There is a real human, "with a true body and a reasonable soul," reigning omnipotent in heaven as Almighty God.
And apart from that truth, we have no hope. For in Isaiah 43, God says, "I, I am YHWH, and besides me there is no savior." If that is true, and if Jesus is not God, then he is not the Savior, and faith in him as such is worse than worthless, and the New Testament is just a bunch of lies.